Tasks of parts C1-C4
1. What environmental factors contribute to the regulation of the number of wolves in the ecosystem?
Answer:
1) anthropogenic: reduction of forest area, excessive hunting;
2) biotic: lack of food, competition, spread of diseases.
2. Determine the type and phase of division of the cell shown in the figure. What processes occur in this phase?
Answer:
1) the figure shows metaphase of mitosis;
2) spindle threads are attached to the centromeres of chromosomes;
3) in this phase, bichromatid chromosomes line up in the equatorial plane.
3. Why does plowing the soil improve the living conditions of cultivated plants?
Answer:
1) promotes the destruction of weeds and reduces competition with cultivated plants;
2) promotes the supply of plants with water and minerals;
3) increases the supply of oxygen to the roots.
4. How does a natural ecosystem differ from an agroecosystem?
Answer:
1) great biodiversity and diversity of food connections and food chains;
2) balanced circulation of substances;
3) long periods of existence.
5. Reveal the mechanisms that ensure the constancy of the number and shape of chromosomes in all cells of organisms from generation to generation?
Answer:
1) thanks to meiosis, gametes with a haploid set of chromosomes are formed;
2) during fertilization, the diploid set of chromosomes is restored in the zygote, which ensures the constancy of the chromosome set;
3) the growth of the organism occurs due to mitosis, which ensures the constancy of the number of chromosomes in somatic cells.
6. What is the role of bacteria in the cycle of substances?
Answer:
1) heterotrophic bacteria - decomposers decompose organic substances into minerals, which are absorbed by plants;
2) autotrophic bacteria (photo, chemotrophs) - producers synthesize organic substances from inorganic ones, ensuring the circulation of oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, etc.
7. What features are characteristic of mossy plants?
Answer:
2) mosses reproduce both sexually and asexually with alternating generations: sexual (gametophyte) and asexual (sporophyte);
3) an adult moss plant is the sexual generation (gametophyte) and the capsule with spores is asexual (sporophyte);
4) fertilization occurs in the presence of water.
8. Squirrels, as a rule, live in coniferous forests and feed mainly on spruce seeds. What biotic factors can lead to a decline in the squirrel population?
9. It is known that the Golgi apparatus is especially well developed in the glandular cells of the pancreas. Explain why.
Answer:
1) pancreatic cells synthesize enzymes that accumulate in the cavities of the Golgi apparatus;
2) in the Golgi apparatus, enzymes are packaged in the form of vesicles;
3) from the Golgi apparatus, enzymes are carried into the pancreatic duct.
10. Ribosomes from different cells, the entire set of amino acids and identical molecules of mRNA and tRNA, created all the conditions for protein synthesis. Why will one type of protein be synthesized on different ribosomes in a test tube?
Answer:
1) the primary structure of a protein is determined by the sequence of amino acids;
2) the templates for protein synthesis are identical mRNA molecules, in which the same primary protein structure is encoded.
11. What structural features are characteristic of representatives of the Chordata type?
Answer:
1) internal axial skeleton;
2) the nervous system in the form of a tube on the dorsal side of the body;
3) cracks in the digestive tube.
12. Clover grows in a meadow and is pollinated by bumblebees. What biotic factors can lead to a decline in clover populations?
Answer:
1) decrease in the number of bumblebees;
2)increase in the number of herbivorous animals;
3) propagation of competitor plants (cereals, etc.).
13. The total mass of mitochondria in relation to the mass of cells of various rat organs is: in the pancreas - 7.9%, in the liver - 18.4%, in the heart - 35.8%. Why do the cells of these organs have different mitochondrial content?
Answer:
1) mitochondria are the energy stations of the cell; ATP molecules are synthesized and accumulated in them;
2) intense work of the heart muscle requires a lot of energy, therefore the content of mitochondria in its cells is the highest;
3) in the liver the number of mitochondria is higher compared to the pancreas, since it has a more intense metabolism.
14. Explain why beef that has not passed sanitary control is dangerous to eat undercooked or lightly cooked.
Answer:
1) beef meat may contain bovine tapeworms;
2) an adult worm develops from the finna in the digestive canal, and the person becomes the final host.
15. Name the plant cell organelle shown in the figure, its structures indicated by numbers 1-3, and their functions.
Answer:
1) the organelle depicted is a chloroplast;
2) 1 - grana thylakoids, involved in photosynthesis;
3) 2 - DNA, 3 - ribosomes, participate in the synthesis of the chloroplast's own proteins.
16. Why can’t bacteria be classified as eukaryotes?
Answer:
1) in their cells, the nuclear substance is represented by one circular DNA molecule and is not separated from the cytoplasm;
2) do not have mitochondria, the Golgi complex, or the ER;
3) do not have specialized germ cells, there is no meiosis and fertilization.
17. What changes biotic factors can lead to an increase in the population of naked slugs that live in the forest and feed mainly on plants?
18. The process of photosynthesis occurs intensively in the leaves of plants. Does it occur in ripe and unripe fruits? Explain your answer.
Answer:
1) photosynthesis occurs in unripe fruits (while they are green), since they contain chloroplasts;
2) as they mature, chloroplasts turn into chromoplasts, in which photosynthesis does not occur.
19. What stages of gametogenesis are indicated in the figure by the letters A, B and C? What set of chromosomes do cells have at each of these stages? What specialized cells does this process lead to the development of?
Answer:
1)A - stage (zone) of reproduction (division), diploid cells;
2)B - stage (zone) of growth, diploid cell;
3) B - stage (zone) of maturation, the cells are haploid, sperm develop.
20. How do bacterial cells differ in structure from the cells of organisms in other kingdoms of living nature? List at least three differences.
Answer:
1) there is no formed nucleus, nuclear envelope;
2) a number of organelles are missing: mitochondria, EPS, Golgi complex, etc.;
3) have one ring chromosome.
21. Why are plants (producers) considered the initial link in the cycle of substances and energy conversion in the ecosystem?
Answer:
1) create organic substances from inorganic ones;
2) accumulate solar energy;
3) provide organic substances and energy of organisms of other parts of the ecosystem.
22. What processes ensure the movement of water and minerals throughout the plant?
Answer:
1) from the root to the leaves, water and minerals move through the vessels due to transpiration, as a result of which suction force arises;
2) the upward flow in the plant is facilitated by root pressure, which arises as a result of the constant flow of water into the root due to the difference in the concentration of substances in the cells and the environment.
23. Look at the cells shown in the figure. Determine which letters represent prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Provide evidence for your point of view.
Answer:
1) A - prokaryotic cell, B - eukaryotic cell;
2) the cell in Figure A does not have a formed nucleus, its hereditary material is represented by a ring chromosome;
3) the cell in Figure B has a formed nucleus and organelles.
24. What is the complexity of the circulatory system of amphibians compared to fish?
Answer:
1) the heart becomes three-chambered;
2) a second circle of blood circulation appears;
3) the heart contains venous and mixed blood.
25. Why is a mixed forest ecosystem considered more sustainable than a spruce forest?
Answer:
1) in a mixed forest more types than in spruce;
2) in a mixed forest the food chains are longer and more branched than in a spruce forest;
3) there are more tiers in a mixed forest than in a spruce forest.
26. A section of a DNA molecule has the following composition: GATGAATAGTGCTTC. List at least three consequences that can result from an accidental replacement of the seventh nucleotide of thymine with cytosine (C).
Answer:
1) a gene mutation will occur - the codon of the third amino acid will change;
2) in a protein, one amino acid may be replaced by another, as a result of which the primary structure of the protein will change;
3) all other protein structures may change, which will lead to the appearance of a new trait in the body.
27. Red algae (purple algae) live at great depths. Despite this, photosynthesis occurs in their cells. Explain why photosynthesis occurs if the water column absorbs rays from the red-orange part of the spectrum.
Answer:
1) photosynthesis requires rays not only from the red, but also from the blue part of the spectrum;
2) the cells of scarlet mushrooms contain a red pigment that absorbs rays from the blue part of the spectrum, their energy is used in the process of photosynthesis.
28. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which errors were made and correct them.
1. Coelenterates are three-layer multicellular animals. 2.They have a gastric or intestinal cavity. 3. The intestinal cavity includes stinging cells. 4. Coelenterates have a reticular (diffuse) nervous system. 5. All coelenterates are free-swimming organisms.
1)1 - coelenterates - two-layer animals;
2)3 - stinging cells are contained in the ectoderm, and not in the intestinal cavity;
3)5 - among the coelenterates there are attached forms.
29. How does gas exchange occur in the lungs and tissues of mammals? What causes this process?
Answer:
1) gas exchange is based on diffusion, which is caused by the difference in gas concentration (partial pressure) in the air of the alveoli and in the blood;
2) oxygen from the area high pressure in the alveolar air enters the blood, and carbon dioxide from the area of high pressure in the blood enters the alveoli;
3) in tissues, oxygen from the area of high pressure in the capillaries enters the intercellular substance and then into the cells of the organs. Carbon dioxide from the high pressure area in the intercellular substance enters the blood.
30. What is the participation of functional groups of organisms in the cycle of substances in the biosphere? Consider the role of each of them in the cycle of substances in the biosphere.
Answer:
1) producers synthesize organic substances from inorganic substances (carbon dioxide, water, nitrogen, phosphorus and other minerals), release oxygen (except for chemotrophs);
2) consumers (and other functional groups) of organisms use and transform organic substances, oxidize them during respiration, absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide and water;
3) decomposers decompose organic substances into inorganic compounds of nitrogen, phosphorus, etc., returning them to the environment.
31. The section of the DNA molecule encoding the sequence of amino acids in a protein has the following composition: G-A-T-G-A-A-T-A-G-TT-C-T-T-C. Explain the consequences of accidentally adding a guanine nucleotide (G) between the seventh and eighth nucleotides.
Answer:
1) a gene mutation will occur - the codes of the third and subsequent amino acids may change;
2) the primary structure of the protein may change;
3) a mutation can lead to the appearance of a new trait in an organism.
32. What plant organs are damaged by cockchafers at different stages of individual development?
Answer:
1) plant roots are damaged by larvae;
2) tree leaves are damaged by adult beetles.
33. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which errors were made and correct them.
1. Flatworms are three-layered animals. 2. The phylum Flatworms include white planaria, human roundworm and liver fluke. 3. Flatworms have an elongated, flattened body. 4. They have a well-developed nervous system. 5. Flatworms are dioecious animals that lay eggs.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - the human roundworm is not classified as a Flatworm; it is a Roundworm;
2)4 - in flatworms the nervous system is poorly developed;
3)5 - Flatworms are hermaphrodites.
34. What is a fruit? What is its significance in the life of plants and animals?
Answer:
1) fruit - the generative organ of angiosperms;
2) contains seeds with the help of which plants reproduce and disperse;
3) plant fruits are food for animals.
35. Most bird species fly away from the northern regions for the winter, despite their warm-blooded nature. Indicate at least three factors that cause these animals to fly.
Answer:
1) food items of insectivorous birds become unavailable for obtaining;
2) ice cover on reservoirs and snow cover on the ground deprive herbivorous birds of food;
3) change in daylight hours.
36. Which milk, sterilized or freshly milked, will sour faster under the same conditions? Explain your answer.
Answer:
1) freshly milked milk will sour faster, since it contains bacteria that cause fermentation of the product;
2) when milk is sterilized, the cells and spores of lactic acid bacteria die, and the milk lasts longer.
37. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made and explain them.
1. The main classes of phylum arthropods are Crustaceans, Arachnids and Insects. 2. The body of crustaceans and arachnids is divided into the head, thorax and abdomen. 3. The body of insects consists of a cephalothorax and abdomen. 4. Arachnids do not have antennae. 5. Insects have two pairs of antennae, and crustaceans have one pair.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - the body of crustaceans and arachnids consists of a cephalothorax and abdomen;
2)3 - the body of insects consists of a head, chest and abdomen;
3)5 - insects have one pair of antennae, and crustaceans have two pairs.
38. Prove that the rhizome of a plant is a modified shoot.
Answer:
1) the rhizome has nodes in which rudimentary leaves and buds are located;
2) at the top of the rhizome there is an apical bud that determines the growth of the shoot;
3) adventitious roots extend from the rhizome;
4) the internal anatomical structure of the rhizome is similar to the stem.
39. To combat insect pests, people use chemicals. Indicate at least three changes in the life of the oak forest if it chemically all herbivorous insects will be destroyed. Explain why they will happen.
Answer:
1) the number of insect-pollinated plants will sharply decrease, since herbivorous insects are plant pollinators;
2) the number of insectivorous organisms (consumers of the 2nd order) will sharply decrease or they will disappear due to disruption of food chains;
3) some of the chemicals used to kill insects will get into the soil, which will lead to disruption of plant life, death of soil flora and fauna, all violations can lead to the death of the oak forest.
40. Why can treatment with antibiotics lead to intestinal dysfunction? Give at least two reasons.
Answer:
1) antibiotics kill beneficial bacteria living in the human intestines;
2) the breakdown of fiber, water absorption and other processes are disrupted.
41.Which part of the sheet is indicated in the figure by the letter A and what structures does it consist of? What functions do these structures perform?
1) the letter A denotes a vascular-fibrous bundle (vein), the bundle includes vessels, sieve tubes, and mechanical tissue;
2) vessels provide transport of water to the leaves;
3) sieve tubes provide transport of organic substances from leaves to other organs;
4) mechanical tissue cells provide strength and serve as the framework of the leaf.
42. What are characteristic features kingdom of mushrooms?
Answer:
1) the body of fungi consists of threads - hyphae, forming a mycelium;
2) reproduce sexually and asexually (spores, mycelium, budding);
3) grow throughout life;
4) in the cell: the membrane contains a chitin-like substance, a reserve nutrient is glycogen.
43. In a small reservoir formed after a river flood, the following organisms were found: slipper ciliates, daphnia, white planaria, large pond snail, cyclops, hydra. Explain whether this body of water can be considered an ecosystem. Provide at least three pieces of evidence.
Answer:
The named temporary reservoir cannot be called an ecosystem, since it contains:
1) there are no producers;
2) there are no decomposers;
3) there is no closed circulation of substances and food chains are disrupted.
44. Why under a tourniquet, which is applied to stop bleeding from large blood vessels, put a note indicating the time it was applied?
Answer:
1) after reading the note, you can determine how much time has passed since the tourniquet was applied;
2) if after 1-2 hours it was not possible to deliver the patient to the doctor, then the tourniquet should be loosened for a while. This will prevent tissue death.
45. Name the structures of the spinal cord, indicated in the figure by numbers 1 and 2, and describe the features of their structure and functions.
Answer:
1)1 - gray matter, formed by the bodies of neurons;
2) 2 - white matter, formed by long processes of neurons;
3) gray matter performs a reflex function, white matter - a conductive function.
46. What role do the salivary glands play in digestion in mammals? List at least three functions.
Answer:
1) the secretion of the salivary glands moistens and disinfects food;
2) saliva participates in the formation of the food bolus;
3) salivary enzymes promote the breakdown of starch.
47. As a result of volcanic activity, an island was formed in the ocean. Describe the sequence of formation of an ecosystem on a newly formed landmass. Please provide at least three items.
Answer:
1) the first to settle are microorganisms and lichens, which ensure the formation of soil;
2) plants settle on the soil, the spores or seeds of which are carried by wind or water;
3) as vegetation develops, animals appear in the ecosystem, primarily arthropods and birds.
48. Experienced gardeners apply fertilizers to the furrows along the edges tree trunk circles fruit trees, rather than distributing them evenly. Explain why.
Answer:
1) the root system grows, the suction zone moves behind the root apex;
2) roots with a developed absorption zone - root hairs - are located at the edges of the trunk circles.
49. What modified shoot is shown in the figure? Name the structural elements indicated in the figure by numbers 1, 2, 3, and the functions that they perform.
Answer:
1) onion;
2)1 - a succulent scale-like leaf in which nutrients and water are stored;
3)2 - adventitious roots, ensuring the absorption of water and minerals;
4)3 - bud, ensures shoot growth.
50. What are the structural features and vital functions of mosses? Please provide at least three items.
Answer:
1) most mosses are leafy plants, some of them have rhizoids;
2) mosses have a poorly developed conducting system;
3) mosses reproduce both sexually and asexually, with alternating generations: sexual (gametophyte) and asexual (sporophyte); An adult moss plant is the sexual generation, and the spore capsule is asexual.
51. As a result of a forest fire, part of the spruce forest burned out. Explain how its self-healing will occur. List at least three steps.
Answer:
1) herbaceous, light-loving plants develop first;
2) then birch, aspen, and pine shoots appear, the seeds of which fell with the help of the wind, and a small-leaved or pine forest is formed.
3) under the canopy of light-loving species, shade-tolerant spruce trees develop, which subsequently completely displace other trees.
52. To establish the cause of a hereditary disease, the patient’s cells were examined and a change in the length of one of the chromosomes was discovered. What research method allowed us to establish the cause of this disease? What type of mutation is it associated with?
Answer:
1) the cause of the disease was established using the cytogenetic method;
2) the disease is caused chromosomal mutation- loss or addition of a chromosome fragment.
53. What letter in the figure indicates the blastula in the development cycle of the lancelet. What are the features of blastula formation?
Answer:
1) the blastula is designated by the letter G;
2) the blastula is formed during the fragmentation of the zygote;
3) the size of the blastula does not exceed the size of the zygote.
54. Why are mushrooms classified as a special kingdom of the organic world?
Answer:
1) the body of mushrooms consists of thin branching threads - hyphae, forming mycelium, or mycelium;
2) mycelial cells store carbohydrates in the form of glycogen;
3) mushrooms cannot be classified as plants, since their cells do not have chlorophyll and chloroplasts; the wall contains chitin;
4) mushrooms cannot be classified as animals, since they absorb nutrients over the entire surface of the body, and do not swallow them in the form of food lumps.
55. In some forest biocenoses for protection chicken birds carried out mass shooting of daytime birds of prey. Explain how this event affected the number of chickens.
Answer:
1) at first, the number of chickens increased, as their enemies were destroyed (naturally regulating the number);
2) then the number of chickens decreased due to lack of food;
3) the number of sick and weakened individuals increased due to the spread of diseases and the lack of predators, which also affected the decrease in the number of chickens.
56. The color of the white hare’s fur changes throughout the year: in winter the hare is white, and in summer it is gray. Explain what type of variability is observed in the animal and what determines the manifestation of this trait.
Answer:
1) the hare exhibits modification (phenotypic, non-hereditary) variability;
2) the manifestation of this trait is determined by changes in environmental conditions (temperature, day length).
57. Name the stages of embryonic development of the lancelet, indicated in the figure by letters A and B. Reveal the features of the formation of each of these stages.
A B
Answer:
1) A - gastrula - stage of a two-layer embryo;
2) B - neurula, has the rudiments of a future larva or adult organism;
3) the gastrula is formed by invagination of the wall of the blastula, and in the neurula the neural plate is first formed, which serves as a regulator for the formation of other organ systems.
58. Name the main features of the structure and activity of bacteria. List at least four features.
Answer:
1) bacteria - prenuclear organisms that do not have a formed nucleus and many organelles;
2) according to the method of nutrition, bacteria are heterotrophs and autotrophs;
3) high rate of reproduction by division;
4) anaerobes and aerobes;
5) unfavorable conditions are experienced in a state of dispute.
59. How does the land-air environment differ from the water environment?
Answer:
1) oxygen content;
2) differences in temperature fluctuations (wide amplitude of fluctuations in the ground-air environment);
3) degree of illumination;
4) density.
Answer:
1) seaweed has the ability to accumulate chemical element iodine;
2) iodine is necessary for normal thyroid function.
61. Why is a ciliate slipper cell considered an integral organism? What organelles of the ciliate slipper are indicated in the figure by numbers 1 and 2 and what functions do they perform?
Answer:
1) the ciliate cell performs all the functions of an independent organism: metabolism, reproduction, irritability, adaptation;
2) 1 - small nucleus, participates in the sexual process;
3) 2 - large nucleus, regulates vital processes.
61. What are the structural features and vital functions of mushrooms? Please indicate at least three characteristics.
62. Explain how acid rain harms plants. Give at least three reasons.
Answer:
1) directly damage plant organs and tissues;
2) pollute the soil, reduce fertility;
3)reduce plant productivity.
63. Why are passengers recommended to suck lollipops when taking off or landing an airplane?
Answer:
1) rapid changes in pressure during takeoff or landing of an airplane cause discomfort in the middle ear, where the initial pressure on the eardrum persists longer;
2) swallowing movements improve air access to the auditory (Eustachian) tube, through which the pressure in the middle ear cavity is equalized with the pressure in the environment.
64. How does the circulatory system of arthropods differ from the circulatory system of annelids? Indicate at least three signs that prove these differences.
Answer:
1) arthropods have an open circulatory system, while annelids have a closed circulatory system;
2) arthropods have a heart on the dorsal side;
3) annelids do not have a heart; its function is performed by a ring vessel.
65. What type of animal is the one shown in the picture? What is indicated by numbers 1 and 2? Name other representatives of this type.
Answer:
1) to the type Coelenterates;
2) 1 - ectoderm, 2 - intestinal cavity;
3) coral polyps, jellyfish.
66. How are morphological, physiological and behavioral adaptations to environmental temperature manifested in warm-blooded animals?
Answer:
1) morphological: heat-insulating covers, subcutaneous layer of fat, changes in the surface of the body;
2) physiological: increased intensity of evaporation of sweat and moisture during breathing; narrowing or dilation of blood vessels, changes in metabolic levels;
3) behavioral: construction of nests, burrows, changes in daily and seasonal activity depending on environmental temperature.
67. How is genetic information transferred from the nucleus to the ribosome?
Answer:
1) mRNA synthesis occurs in the nucleus in accordance with the principle of complementarity;
2) mRNA - a copy of a DNA section containing information about the primary structure of the protein, moves from the nucleus to the ribosome.
68. How is the complexity of ferns compared to mosses? Give at least three signs.
Answer:
1) the ferns have roots;
2) ferns, unlike mosses, have developed developed conductive tissue;
3) in the development cycle of ferns, the asexual generation (sporophyte) predominates over the sexual generation (gametophyte), which is represented by the prothallus.
69. Name the germ layer of a vertebrate animal, indicated in the figure by number 3. What type of tissue and what organs are formed from it.
Answer:
1) germ layer - endoderm;
2 epithelial tissue (epithelium of the intestines and respiratory organs);
3) organs: intestines, digestive glands, respiratory organs, some endocrine glands.
70. What role do birds play in the forest biocenosis? Give at least three examples.
Answer:
1) regulate the number of plants (distribute fruits and seeds);
2) regulate the number of insects and small rodents;
3) serve as food for predators;
4) fertilize the soil.
71. What is the protective role of leukocytes in the human body?
Answer:
1) leukocytes are capable of phagocytosis - devouring and digesting proteins, microorganisms, dead cells;
2) leukocytes take part in the production of antibodies that neutralize certain antigens.
72. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made, correct them.
According to the chromosomal theory of heredity:
1. Genes are located on chromosomes in linear order. 2. Each occupies a specific place - an allele. 3. Genes on one chromosome form a linkage group. 4. The number of linkage groups is determined by the diploid number of chromosomes. 5. Disruption of gene cohesion occurs during the process of chromosome conjugation in the prophase of meiosis.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - location of the gene - locus;
2)4 - the number of linkage groups is equal to the haploid set of chromosomes;
3)5 - disruption of gene linkage occurs during crossing over.
73. Why do some scientists classify green euglena as a plant, and others as an animal? Provide at least three reasons.
Answer:
1) capable of heterotrophic nutrition, like all animals;
2) capable of active movement in search of food, like all animals;
3) contains chlorophyll in the cell and is capable of autotrophic nutrition, like plants.
74. What processes occur at the stages of energy metabolism?
Answer:
1)on preparatory stage complex organic substances are broken down into less complex ones (biopolymers - into monomers), energy is dissipated in the form of heat;
2) in the process of glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvic acid (or lactic acid, or alcohol) and 2 ATP molecules are synthesized;
3) at the oxygen stage, pyruvic acid (pyruvate) is broken down into carbon dioxide and water and 36 ATP molecules are synthesized.
75. In a wound formed on the human body, bleeding stops over time, but suppuration may occur. Explain what properties of blood this is due to.
Answer:
1) bleeding stops due to blood clotting and the formation of a blood clot;
2) suppuration is caused by the accumulation of dead leukocytes that have carried out phagocytosis.
76. Find errors in the given text and correct them. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made and explain them.
1. Proteins are of great importance in the structure and functioning of organisms. 2. These are biopolymers whose monomers are nitrogenous bases. 3. Proteins are part of the plasma membrane. 4. Many proteins perform enzymatic functions in the cell. 5. Hereditary information about the characteristics of the organism is encrypted in protein molecules. 6. Protein and tRNA molecules are part of ribosomes.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - monomers of proteins are amino acids;
2)5 - hereditary information about the characteristics of an organism is encrypted in DNA molecules;
3)6- ribosomes contain rRNA molecules, not tRNA.
77. What is myopia? In what part of the eye does the image focus in a nearsighted person? What is the difference between congenital and acquired forms of myopia?
Answer:
1) myopia is a disease of the visual organs in which a person has difficulty distinguishing distant objects;
2) in a myopic person, the image of objects appears in front of the retina;
3) with congenital myopia, the shape of the eyeball changes (lengthens);
4) acquired myopia is associated with a change (increase) in the curvature of the lens.
78. How does the skeleton of the human head differ from the skeleton of the head of great apes? List at least four differences.
Answer:
1) predominance of the cerebral part of the skull over the facial part;
2) reduction of the jaw apparatus;
3) the presence of a chin protuberance on the lower jaw;
4)reduction of brow ridges.
79. Why is the volume of urine excreted by the human body per day not equal to the volume of liquid drunk during the same time?
Answer:
1) part of the water is used by the body or formed in metabolic processes;
2) part of the water evaporates through the respiratory organs and sweat glands.
80. Find errors in the given text, correct them, indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made, write down these sentences without errors.
1. Animals are heterotrophic organisms; they feed on ready-made organic substances. 2. There are unicellular and multicellular animals. 3. All multicellular animals have bilateral body symmetry. 4. Most of them have developed various organs of movement. 5. Only arthropods and chordates have a circulatory system. 6. Postembryonic development in all multicellular animals is direct.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1) 3 - not all multicellular animals have bilateral symmetry of the body; for example, in coelenterates it is radial (radial);
2) 5 - the circulatory system is also present in annelids and mollusks;
3) 6 - direct postembryonic development not common to all multicellular animals.
81. What is the importance of blood in human life?
Answer:
1) performs a transport function: delivery of oxygen and nutrients to tissues and cells, removal of carbon dioxide and metabolic products;
2) performs a protective function due to the activity of leukocytes and antibodies;
3) participates in the humoral regulation of the body’s vital functions.
82. Use information about the early stages of embryogenesis (zygote, blastula, gastrula) to confirm the sequence of development of the animal world.
Answer:
1) the zygote stage corresponds to a unicellular organism;
2) the blastula stage, where the cells are not differentiated, is similar to colonial forms;
3) the embryo at the gastrula stage corresponds to the structure of the coelenterate (hydra).
83. Administration of large doses into a vein medicines accompanied by their dilution with physiological solution (0.9% NaCl solution). Explain why.
Answer:
1) administration of large doses of drugs without dilution can cause a sharp change in blood composition and irreversible phenomena;
2) the concentration of saline solution (0.9% NaCl solution) corresponds to the concentration of salts in the blood plasma and does not cause the death of blood cells.
84. Find errors in the given text, correct them, indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they were made, write down these sentences without errors.
1. Animals of the arthropod type have an external chitinous cover and jointed limbs. 2. The body of most of them consists of three sections: head, chest and abdomen. 3. All arthropods have one pair of antennae. 4. Their eyes are complex (faceted). 5. The circulatory system of insects is closed.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)3 - not all arthropods have one pair of antennae (arachnids do not have them, and crustaceans have two pairs);
2)4 - not all arthropods have complex (compounded) eyes: in arachnids they are simple or absent, in insects they can have simple eyes along with complex eyes;
3)5 - the circulatory system of arthropods is not closed.
85. What are the functions of the human digestive system?
Answer:
1)mechanical processing of food;
2) chemical processing of food;
3) movement of food and removal of undigested residues;
4)absorption of nutrients, mineral salts and water into the blood and lymph.
86. How is biological progress characterized in flowering plants? Specify at least three signs.
Answer:
1) a wide variety of populations and species;
2) wide distribution on the globe;
3) adaptability to life in different environmental conditions.
87. Why should food be chewed thoroughly?
Answer:
1) well-chewed food is quickly soaked in saliva oral cavity and begins to digest;
2) well-chewed food is quickly saturated with digestive juices in the stomach and intestines and is therefore easier to digest.
88. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made, correct them.
1. A population is a collection of freely interbreeding individuals of the same species that inhabit a common territory for a long time. 2. Different populations of the same species are relatively isolated from each other, and their individuals do not interbreed. 3. The gene pool of all populations of one species is the same. 4. The population is the elementary unit of evolution. 5. A group of frogs of the same species living in a deep pool for one summer constitutes a population.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - populations of one species are partially isolated, but individuals from different populations can interbreed;
2)3 - the gene pools of different populations of the same species are different;
3)5 - a group of frogs is not a population, since a group of individuals of the same species is considered a population if it occupies the same space for a large number of generations.
89. Why is it recommended to drink salted water in the summer when you are thirsty for a long time?
Answer:
1) in summer a person sweats more;
2) mineral salts are removed from the body through sweat;
3) salted water restores the normal water-salt balance between tissues and the internal environment of the body.
90. What proves that a person belongs to the class of mammals?
Answer:
1) similarity in the structure of organ systems;
2) the presence of hair;
3) development of the embryo in the uterus;
4) feeding the offspring with milk, caring for the offspring.
91. What processes maintain consistency? chemical composition human blood plasma?
Answer:
1) processes in buffer systems maintain the reaction of the medium (pH) at a constant level;
2) neurohumoral regulation of the chemical composition of plasma is carried out.
92. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made and explain them.
1. A population is a collection of freely interbreeding individuals of different species that inhabit a common territory for a long time. 2. The main group characteristics of a population are size, density, age, sex and spatial structure. 3. The totality of all genes in a population is called the gene pool. 4. A population is a structural unit of living nature. 5. Population numbers are always stable.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)1 - a population is a collection of freely interbreeding individuals of the same species that inhabit the general territory of the population for a long time;
2)4 - the population is a structural unit of the species;
3)5 - population numbers can change in different seasons and years.
93. What structures of the body cover protect the human body from the effects of environmental temperature factors? Explain their role.
Answer:
1) subcutaneous fatty tissue protects the body from cooling;
2) sweat glands produce sweat, which, when evaporated, protects against overheating;
3) hair on the head protects the body from cooling and overheating;
4) changes in the lumen of skin capillaries regulate heat transfer.
94. Give at least three progressive biological characteristics of a person that he acquired in the process of long evolution.
Answer:
1) enlargement of the brain and cerebral part of the skull;
2) upright posture and corresponding changes in the skeleton;
3) liberation and development of the hand, opposition of the thumb.
95. Which division of meiosis is similar to mitosis? Explain how it is expressed and what set of chromosomes in the cell it leads to.
Answer:
1) similarities with mitosis are observed in the second division of meiosis;
2) all phases are similar, sister chromosomes (chromatids) diverge to the poles of the cell;
3) the resulting cells have a haploid set of chromosomes.
96.What is the difference between arterial bleeding and venous bleeding?
Answer:
1) with arterial bleeding, the blood is scarlet;
2) it shoots out from the wound with a strong stream, a fountain.
97. A diagram of what process occurring in the human body is shown in the figure? What underlies this process and how does the composition of the blood change as a result? Explain your answer.
capillary
Answer:
1) the figure shows a diagram of gas exchange in the lungs (between the pulmonary vesicle and the blood capillary);
2) gas exchange is based on diffusion - the penetration of gases from a place with high pressure to a place with less pressure;
3) as a result of gas exchange, the blood is saturated with oxygen and turns from venous (A) to arterial (B).
98. What effect does physical inactivity (low physical activity) have on the human body?
Answer:
physical inactivity leads to:
1) to a decrease in the level of metabolism, an increase in adipose tissue, excess body weight;
2) weakening of skeletal and cardiac muscles, increased load on the heart and decreased endurance of the body;
3) stagnation of venous blood in the lower extremities, vasodilation, circulatory disorders.
(Other wording of the answer is allowed without distorting its meaning.)
99. What characteristics do plants living in arid conditions have?
Answer:
1) the root system of plants penetrates deeply into the soil, reaching groundwater or located in the surface layer of soil;
2) in some plants, water is stored in leaves, stems and other organs during drought;
3) the leaves are covered with a waxy coating, pubescent or modified into spines or needles.
100. What is the reason for the need for iron ions to enter the human blood? Explain your answer.
Answer:
2) red blood cells provide transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
101. Through what vessels and what kind of blood does the chambers of the heart, indicated in the figure by numbers 3 and 5? Which circulatory system is each of these heart structures connected to?
Answer:
1) the chamber marked with number 3 receives venous blood from the superior and inferior vena cava;
2) the chamber indicated by the number 5 receives arterial blood from the pulmonary veins;
3) the heart chamber, indicated by the number 3, is connected to the systemic circulation;
4) the heart chamber, indicated by the number 5, is connected to the pulmonary circulation.
102. What are vitamins, what is their role in the life of the human body?
Answer:
1) vitamins - biologically active organic substances needed in small quantities;
2) they are part of enzymes, participating in metabolism;
3) increase the body’s resistance to adverse effects external environment, stimulate growth, development of the body, restoration of tissues and cells.
103. The body shape of the Kalima butterfly resembles a leaf. How did the butterfly develop such a body shape?
Answer:
1) the appearance of various hereditary changes in individuals;
2)saving natural selection individuals with altered body shape;
3) reproduction and distribution of individuals with a body shape resembling a leaf.
104. What is the nature of most enzymes and why do they lose their activity when the level of radiation increases?
Answer:
1) most enzymes are proteins;
2) under the influence of radiation, denaturation occurs, the structure of the protein-enzyme changes.
105. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the proposals in which they were made, correct them.
1. Plants, like all living organisms, eat, breathe, grow, and reproduce. 2. According to the method of nutrition, plants are classified as autotrophic organisms. 3. When plants respire, they absorb carbon dioxide and release oxygen. 4. All plants reproduce by seeds. 5. Plants, like animals, grow only in the first years of life.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)3 - when plants respire, they absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide;
2)4 - only flowering plants and gymnosperms reproduce by seeds, and algae, mosses, and ferns reproduce by spores;
3)5 - plants grow throughout their lives, have unlimited growth.
106. What is the reason for the need for iron ions to enter the human blood? Explain your answer.
Answer:
1) iron ions are part of the hemoglobin of erythrocytes;
2) hemoglobin of erythrocytes ensures the transport of oxygen and carbon dioxide, as it is able to bind with these gases;
3) the supply of oxygen is necessary for the energy metabolism of the cell, and carbon dioxide is its final product that must be removed.
107. Explain why people of different races are classified as the same species. Provide at least three pieces of evidence.
Answer:
1) similarity in structure, life processes, behavior;
2) genetic unity - the same set of chromosomes, their structure;
3) interracial marriages produce offspring capable of reproduction.
108.V ancient india the suspect in the crime was offered to swallow a handful of dry rice. If he failed, guilt was considered proven. Give a physiological basis for this process.
Answer:
1) swallowing is a complex reflex act, which is accompanied by salivation and irritation of the root of the tongue;
2) with strong excitement, salivation is sharply inhibited, the mouth becomes dry, and the swallowing reflex does not occur.
109. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which they are made and explain them.
1. The food chain of biogeocenosis includes producers, consumers and decomposers. 2. The first link in the food chain is consumers. 3. Consumers in the light accumulate energy absorbed in the process of photosynthesis. 4. In the dark phase of photosynthesis, oxygen is released. 5. Decomposers contribute to the release of energy accumulated by consumers and producers.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - the first link is the producers;
2)3 - consumers are not capable of photosynthesis;
3)4 - oxygen is released in the light phase of photosynthesis.
110. What are the causes of anemia in humans? Specify at least three possible reasons.
Answer:
1) large blood loss;
2) malnutrition (lack of iron and vitamins, etc.);
3) disruption of the formation of red blood cells in the hematopoietic organs.
111. The wasp fly is similar in color and body shape to the wasp. Name the type of its protective device, explain its significance and the relative nature of the adaptation.
Answer:
1) type of adaptation - mimicry, imitation of the color and body shape of an unprotected animal to a protected one;
2) the resemblance to a wasp warns a possible predator of the danger of being stung;
3) the fly becomes prey for young birds that have not yet developed a reflex to the wasp.
112. Make a food chain using all the objects named below: humus, cross spider, hawk, great tit, housefly. Identify third-order consumers in the constructed chain.
Answer:
1) humus -> housefly -> cross spider -> great tit -> hawk;
2) consumer of the third order - the great tit.
113. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. Annelids are the most highly organized animal cut of other types of worms. 2. Annelids have an open circulatory system. 3. The body of an annelid worm consists of identical segments. 4. Annelids have no body cavity. 5. The nervous system of annelids is represented by the peripharyngeal ring and the dorsal nerve cord.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - Annelids have a closed circulatory system;
2)4 - Annelids have a body cavity;
3)5 - the nerve chain is located on the ventral side of the body.
114. Name at least three aromorphoses in land plants that allowed them to be the first to develop land. Justify your answer.
Answer:
1) the appearance of integumentary tissue—the epidermis with stomata—promoting protection from evaporation;
2) the emergence of a conducting system that ensures the transport of substances;
3) development of mechanical tissue that performs a supporting function.
115. Explain why there is a large diversity of marsupial mammals in Australia and their absence on other continents.
Answer:
1) Australia separated from other continents during the heyday of marsupials before the appearance of placental animals (geographical isolation);
2) the natural conditions of Australia contributed to the divergence of marsupial characters and active speciation;
3) on other continents, marsupials were replaced by placental mammals.
116. In what cases does a change in the sequence of DNA nucleotides not affect the structure and functions of the corresponding protein?
Answer:
1) if, as a result of a nucleotide replacement, another codon appears, encoding the same amino acid;
2) if the codon formed as a result of a nucleotide replacement encodes a different amino acid, but with similar chemical properties that does not change the structure of the protein;
3) if nucleotide changes occur in intergenic or non-functioning DNA regions.
117. Why is the relationship between pike and perch in the river ecosystem considered competitive?
Answer:
1) are predators, feed on similar food;
2) live in the same body of water, need similar living conditions, mutually oppress each other.
118. Find errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of sentences in which errors were made, correct them.
1. The main classes of phylum arthropods are Crustaceans, Arachnids and Insects. 2. Insects have four pairs of legs, and arachnids have three pairs. 3. The crayfish has simple eyes, while the cross spider has complex eyes. 4. Arachnids have arachnoid warts on their abdomen. 5. The cross spider and the cockchafer breathe using lung sacs and tracheas.
Errors were made in the sentences:
1)2 - insects have three pairs of legs, and arachnids have four pairs;
2)3 - the crayfish has compound eyes, and the cross spider has simple eyes;
3)5 - y chafer there are no lung sacs, but only tracheas.
119. What are the structural features and vital functions of cap mushrooms? Name at least four features.
Answer:
1) have a mycelium and a fruiting body;
2) reproduce by spores and mycelium;
3) according to the method of nutrition - heterotrophs;
4) most form mycorrhizae.
120. What aromorphoses allowed ancient amphibians to develop land.
Answer:
1) the appearance of pulmonary breathing;
2) formation of dismembered limbs;
3) the appearance of a three-chambered heart and two circulation circles.
Instructions
To solve genetic problems, certain types of research are used. The method of hybridological analysis was developed by G. Mendel. It allows us to identify patterns of inheritance of individual characteristics during sexual reproduction. The essence of this method is simple: when analyzing certain alternative traits, they are traced in the offspring. An accurate record of the manifestation of each alternative trait and each individual offspring is also carried out.
The basic patterns of inheritance were also developed by Mendel. The scientist derived three laws. Subsequently, they are called Mendel’s laws. The first is the law of uniformity of hybrids of the first. Take two heterozygous individuals. When crossed they will produce two types of gametes. These offspring will appear in a ratio of 1:2:1.
Mendel's second law is the law of splitting. It is based on the fact that a dominant gene does not always suppress a recessive one. In this case, not all individuals among the first generation reproduce the characteristics of their parents - the so-called intermediate nature of inheritance appears. For example, when homozygous with red flowers (AA) and white flowers (aa) are crossed, offspring with pink flowers are obtained. Incomplete dominance is quite common. It is also found in some biochemical characteristics.
The third and last law is the law of independent combination of characteristics. For this law to manifest itself, several conditions must be met: there should be no lethal genes, dominance must be complete, genes must be located on different chromosomes.
The problems of gender genetics stand apart. There are two types of sex chromosomes: the X chromosome (female) and the Y chromosome (male). A sex that has two identical sex chromosomes is called homogametic. Sex determined by different chromosomes is called heterogametic. The sex of the future individual is determined at the moment of fertilization. Sex chromosomes, in addition to genes that carry information about sex, also contain others that have nothing to do with this. For example, the gene responsible for blood clotting is carried by the female X chromosome. Sex-linked characteristics are transmitted from mother to sons and daughters, but from father - only to daughters.
Video on the topic
Sources:
- solving problems in biology genetics
- for dihybrid crossing and inheritance of traits
All tasks in genetics, as a rule, come down to several main types: calculations, to determine the genotype, and to find out how a trait is inherited. Such problems can be schematic or illustrated. However, to successfully solve any problem, including genetic ones, you must carefully read its conditions. The decision itself is based on performing a number of specific actions.
You will need
- - notebook;
- - textbook on genetics;
- - pen.
Instructions
First you need to determine the type of task being proposed. To do this, you will have to find out how many gene pairs are responsible for the development of the proposed traits, and what traits are being considered. Find out whether homo- or heterozygous in this case are crossed with each other, and also whether the inheritance of a certain trait is associated with sex chromosomes.
Find out which of the characteristics proposed for study is (weak) and which is dominant (strong). At the same time, when solving a genetic problem, one must start from the premise that the dominant trait in the descendants will always manifest itself phenotypically.
Determine the number and type of gametes (sexual). It should be borne in mind that gametes can only be haploid. Accordingly, the distribution of chromosomes during their division occurs evenly: each gamete will contain only one chromosome taken from a homologous pair. As a result, the offspring receives a “half” set of chromosomes from each of their own.
Make a schematic note of the conditions of the genetic problem in your notebook. In this case, the dominant characteristics for a homozygous subject are in the form of a combination of AA, for a heterozygous one - Aa. The undetermined genotype has A_. The recessive trait is written as a combination aa.
Analyze the results obtained and write down this numerical ratio. This will be the answer to the genetic task.
Video on the topic
In many similar problems, the genotype of the individuals proposed for crossing is not specified. This is why it is so important to be able to independently determine the genotype of parents from the phenotype or genotype of their offspring.
When studying genetics, much attention is paid to problems whose solutions must be found using the laws of gene inheritance. Most students natural Sciences solving problems on genetics seems to be one of the most difficult things in biology. However, it is found using a simple algorithm.
You will need
- - textbook.
Instructions
First, read the problem carefully and write down a schematic condition using special symbols. Indicate what genotypes the parents have and what phenotype corresponds to them. Write down what kind of children came out in the first and second generations.
Note which gene is dominant and which is recessive, if it is in the condition. If a split is given in the problem, also indicate it in the schematic notation. For simple tasks sometimes it is enough to write down the condition to understand the solution tasks.
To successfully solve the problem, you need to understand which section it belongs to: monohybrid, dihybrid or polyhybrid crossing, sex-linked inheritance, or a trait inherited by genes. To do this, calculate what splitting of the genotype or phenotype is observed in the offspring in the first generation. The condition may indicate the exact number of individuals with each genotype or phenotype, or the percentage of each genotype (phenotype) from. This data needs to be reduced to simple ones.
Pay attention to whether the offspring exhibit different traits based on gender.
Each type of crossing is characterized by its own special splitting and phenotype. All this data is contained in the textbook, and it will be convenient for you to write these formulas on a separate piece of paper and use them when solving problems.
Now that you have discovered the splitting principle by which the transmission of hereditary characteristics occurs in your problem, you can find out the genotypes and phenotypes of all individuals in the offspring, as well as the genotypes and phenotypes of the parents involved in the crossing.
All tasks By biology are divided into tasks by molecular biology And tasks by genetics. In molecular biology there are several topics that have tasks: proteins, nucleic acids, DNA code and energy metabolism.
Instructions
Decide tasks on the topic “Proteins” using the following formula: m(min) = a/b*100%, where m(min) is the molecular weight, a is the atomic or molecular weight of the component, b is the percentage of the component. The average molecular weight of one acid residue is 120.
Calculate the necessary quantities on the topic “ Nucleic acids”, adhering to Chargaff: 1. The amount of adenine is equal to the amount of thymine, and guanine is equal to cytosine;
2. The number of purine bases is equal to the number of pyrimidine bases, i.e. A+G = T+C. In the chain of a DNA molecule, the distance between nucleotides is 0.34 nm. The relative molecular weight of one nucleotide is 345.
Solve problems on the topic “DNA Code” using a special table of genetic codes. Thanks to it, you will find out which acid is encoded by a particular genetic code.
Calculate the answer you need for problems on the topic “Energy Exchange” using the reaction equation. One of the most common is: C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O.
Find genetics using a special algorithm. First, determine which genes are dominant (A, B) and which are recessive (a, b). A gene is called dominant, the trait of which manifests itself both in the homozygous (AA, aa) and heterozygous states (Aa, Bb). A gene is called recessive, the trait of which appears only when identical genes meet, i.e. in a homozygous state. For example, yellow seeded peas were crossed with seeded peas. The resulting pea plants were all yellow. It's obvious that yellow is the dominant feature. Write down the solution to this tasks so: A is the gene responsible for the yellow color of seeds, a is the gene responsible for green color seed.R: AA x aa
G: A, a
F1: AaExist tasks of this type with several characteristics, then denote one characteristic as A or a, and the second as B or b.
The study of genetics is accompanied by problem solving. They clearly show the effect of the law of genetic inheritance. Most students find solving these problems incredibly difficult. But, knowing the solution algorithm, you can easily cope with them.
Instructions
Two main types can be distinguished. In the first type of problem, the genotypes of the parents are known. It is necessary to determine the genotypes of the offspring. First determine which allele is dominant. Find the allele. Record the genotypes of the parents. Write down all possible types of gametes. Connect. Define splitting.
In problems of the second type, the opposite is true. Here, splitting in the offspring is known. It is necessary to determine the genotypes of the parents. Find, in the same way as in problems of the first type, which allele is dominant and which is recessive. Determine the possible types of gametes. Using them, determine the genotypes of the parents.
To solve the problem correctly, read it carefully and analyze the condition. To determine the type of problem, find out how many pairs of features are considered in the problem. Pay attention also to how many pairs of genes control the development of traits. It is important to find out whether they are homozygous or crossed, what type of crossing is. Determine whether genes are independent or linked, how many genotypes are formed in the offspring, and whether inheritance is related to gender.
Start solving the problem. Write down the condition briefly. Record the genotype or phenotype of the individuals involved in the cross. Identify and note the types of gametes produced. Record the genotypes or phenotypes of the offspring resulting from the cross. Analyze the results and write them down numerically. Write the answer.
Master Class"Preparation for the OGE in Biology"
Analysis of tasks No. 28; No. 31; No. 32 of the second part of the OGE in biology
The master class was developed and conducted by a biology teacher of category I
Isakova Natalya Vladislavovna
(Municipal Educational Institution “Emmausskaya Secondary School”, Tver)
Goals and objectives of the master class in biology
1. Study the specification of testing and measuring materials in biology in the OGE 2016-2017.
2. Familiarize yourself with the codifier of content elements and the requirements for the level of training of graduates of general education institutions for the OGE in biology.
3. Develop skills and abilities to work with tasks of a basic level of complexity.
Equipment: presentation, demo version of the OGE in biology 2016-2017; codifier of content elements and requirements for the level of training of graduates of general education institutions for the 2016-2017 OGE in biology (project); CMM specification (project).
introduction teachers
Let's get acquainted with the instructions for performing the work:
The examination paper consists of two parts, including 32 tasks. Part I contains 28 short-answer tasks, Part II contains 4 long-answer tasks.
3 hours (180 minutes) are allotted to complete the examination work.
Answers to tasks 1-22 are written as one number, which corresponds to the number of the correct answer. Write this figure in the answer field in the text of the work, then transfer it to answer form No. 1.
Answers to tasks 23-28 are written as a sequence of numbers. Write this sequence of numbers in the answer field in the text of the work, then transfer it to answer form No. 1.
For tasks 29-32 you should give a detailed answer. The tasks are completed on answer form No. 2.
When completing assignments, you can use a draft. Entries in the draft are not taken into account when grading work.
The points you receive for completed tasks are summed up. Try to complete as many tasks as possible and score the most points.
Let's get acquainted with the criteria for assessing examination work.
1. For correct completion of tasks 1-22, 1 point is awarded.
2. For the correct answer to each of tasks 23-27, 2 points are awarded.
3. For the answer to tasks 23-24, 1 point is given if the answer indicates any two numbers presented in the answer standard and 0 points if only one number is indicated correctly or none is indicated.
4. If the examinee indicates more characters in the answer than necessary, then for each extra character 1 point is reduced (to 0 points).
5. For a complete correct answer to task 28, 3 points are awarded; 2 points are given if at any position in the answer the symbol written is not the one presented in the answer standard; 1 point is given if any two positions of the answer contain characters other than those presented in the answer standard, and 0 points in all other cases.
So, let's start analyzing task No. 28 of the second part of the OGE in biology.
In order for our work to be productive, let's remember the shapes of leaves, types of leaves (venation).
(slides 3-11).
We begin the analysis of task No. 28 standard version№1 2017
1. Determine the type of leaf If the leaf has a petiole, then the leaf type is petiolate. If a leaf has no petiole, the leaf is sessile.
2. Determine the venation of the leaf. This leaf has pinnate (network) venation, since the leaf has one powerful vein located in the middle.
3.Leaf shape. In order to determine the shape of the sheet, you need to draw dotted lines in the figure in KIM and use the sample presented in the task to determine the shape of the sheet (working with an interactive whiteboard).
4. Determine the type of sheet using a ruler and pencil. We draw dotted lines. If the length is equal to or exceeds the width by 1-2 times, then the type of sheet in terms of the ratio of length and width is ovoid, oval or obovate.. This sheet has a width of 3 cm, a length of 4.5 cm, which means the shape of this sheet is ovoid (working with interactive board).
5. It remains to determine the edge of the sheet. We will carefully consider the samples offered in KIMA and select a suitable sample for our sheet. The leaf is entire-marginal, as there are no teeth along the edges. 
Task No. 28 was completed successfully.
We begin to analyze task No. 31 of standard version No. 1 of 2017.
1. Carefully read the conditions of the problem.
2. We emphasize in the text the questions that we must answer (what we must calculate).
3.So we need to indicate: the energy consumption of the morning workout, recommended dishes, calorie content of lunch and the amount of protein in it
4. Let’s calculate the energy consumption of the morning workout. To do this, we will use table No. 3 “Energy consumption at various types physical activity».
From the conditions of the problem we know that Olga plays tennis, which means the energy cost will be equal to 7.5 kcal/min.
(the value is taken from table No. 3, taking into account the type of sport that Olga is involved in). We need to calculate the energy consumption of a morning two-hour workout. This means 120 minutes (2 hours of training) X 7.5 kcal. (energy cost of physical activity) and we get the energy consumption of a morning workout of 900 kcal. (120 X 7.5 =900 kcal.)
To create a menu, we use table No. 2 in the “Energy value” column.
Menu: Sandwich with meat cutlet (energy value – 425 kcal.)
Vegetable salad (energy value - 60 kcal.)
Ice cream with chocolate filling (energy value – 325 kcal.)
Tea with sugar (two teaspoons) - energy. value – 68 kcal.
+60 + 325 + 68 =878 kcal. (calorie content of recommended lunch).
39+ 3 +6= 48 g.
The task was completed successfully.
Let's look at task No. 32 of standard version No. 1 of 2017.
Why did the coach turn Special attention Olga on the protein content in the ordered dishes? Provide at least two arguments.
Task No. 32 follows from task No. 31.
1. Protein is the main one construction material for body. Protein consists of muscles, ligaments, skin and internal organs.
2. Protein is a source of energy.
Task completed, thanks for your work!
Secondary general education
Biology
Preparing for the Unified State Exam in Biology: text with errors
MIOO Professor, Candidate of Pedagogical Sciences Georgy Lerner talks about the features of tasks No. 24 (text with errors) and No. 25 (questions) from the upcoming Unified State Exam in biology. Final exams are getting closer, and the Russian Textbook Corporation, through a series of webinars, helps prepare for them, taking into account innovations and experience of past years.
- Don't "train" students on specific tasks. Future surgeons, veterinarians, psychologists and representatives of other serious professions must demonstrate deep knowledge of the subject.
- Go beyond the textbooks. At the specialized exam, graduates will have to demonstrate more than knowledge of the program.
- Use proven manuals. With a wide variety of materials on biology, many teachers choose publications of the Russian Textbook Corporation.
- Allow for variability in answers. There is no need to present the standard formulation as the only correct one. The answer can be given in other words, contain additional information, differ from the standard in form and sequence of presentation.
- Practice answering questions in writing. Students are often unable to give complete written answers even when high level knowledge.
- Get used to working with drawings. Some students do not know how to extract information from illustrations for assignments.
- Demonstrate knowledge of terminology. This is especially important in the second part of the exam. Appeal with concepts (preferably literary).
- Express your thoughts clearly. Answers must be accurate and meaningful.
- Read the assignments carefully and take into account all the criteria. If it is indicated “Explain your answer”, “Give evidence”, “Explain the meaning”, then points are reduced for lack of explanation.
- Write the correct definition. In task No. 24, an error is not considered corrected if the answer contains only a negative judgment.
- Use the method of elimination. In task No. 24, first look for sentences that definitely contain or definitely do not contain an error.
Examples of tasks No. 24 and possible difficulties
Exercise: Find three errors in the given text. Indicate the numbers of the sentences in which errors were made and correct them. Give the correct wording.
Example 1
Example 2
(1) Eukaryotic cells begin preparing to divide in prophase. (2) During this preparation, the process of protein biosynthesis occurs, DNA molecules are doubled, and ATP is synthesized. (3) In the first phase of mitosis, the centrioles of the cell center, mitochondria and plastids are duplicated. (4) Mitotic division consists of four phases. (5) In metaphase, chromosomes line up in the equatorial plane. (6) Then, in anaphase, homologous chromosomes diverge to the poles of the cell. (7) The biological significance of mitosis is that it ensures the constancy of the number of chromosomes in all cells of the body.
Response elements:(1) Preparation for division begins in interphase. (3) The duplication of all these organelles occurs in interphase. (6) Sister chromatids, rather than homologous chromosomes, disperse to the cell poles in mitosis.
Note: The student can write “chromatids-chromosomes.” In textbooks there is the phrase: “Chromatids are also chromosomes,” so such a wording will not be considered an error or will become a reason for an appeal if the score is reduced for it.
A new textbook is offered to the attention of students and teachers, which will help them successfully prepare for a single state exam in biology. The reference book contains all the theoretical material on the biology course required to pass the Unified State Exam. It includes all elements of content, verified by test materials, and helps to generalize and systematize knowledge and skills for a secondary (high) school course. Theoretical material is presented in a concise, accessible form. Each section is accompanied by examples of test tasks that allow you to test your knowledge and degree of preparedness for the certification exam. Practical tasks correspond to the Unified State Exam format. At the end of the manual, answers to tests are provided that will help schoolchildren and applicants test themselves and fill in existing gaps. The manual is addressed to schoolchildren, applicants and teachers.
Example 3
(1) Chromosomes contained in one animal cell are always paired, i.e. identical, or homologous. (2) Chromosomes different couples organisms of the same species are also identical in size, shape, and locations of primary and secondary constrictions. (3) The set of chromosomes contained in one nucleus is called a chromosome set (karyotype). (4) In any animal organism, somatic and germ cells are distinguished. (5) The nuclei of somatic and germ cells contain a haploid set of chromosomes. (6) Somatic cells are formed as a result of meiotic division. (7) Sex cells are necessary for the formation of a zygote.
Response elements:(2) Chromosomes of different pairs differ from each other in all of the listed characteristics. (5) Somatic cells contain a diploid set of chromosomes. (6) Somatic cells are formed by mitosis.
Note: Chromosomes are not always paired, so the student may identify the first sentence as incorrect. If he correctly corrects the remaining three sentences, the score for this will not be reduced.
Example 4
(1) Amphibians are vertebrate animals that live in water and on land. (2) They swim well; swimming membranes are developed between the toes of tailless amphibians. (3) Amphibians move on land using two pairs of five-fingered limbs. (4) Amphibians breathe using their lungs and skin. (5) Adult amphibians have a two-chambered heart. (6) Fertilization in tailless amphibians is internal; tadpoles develop from fertilized eggs. (7) Amphibians include the lake frog, gray toad, water snake, and crested newt.
Response elements:(5) Tadpoles have a two-chambered heart. (6) In the vast majority of tailless amphibians, fertilization is external. (7) The water snake is classified as a reptile.
Note: The limbs of frogs are correctly called five-fingered, but the student can write that one pair of frog limbs is four-fingered. Without the remaining corrections provided, this paragraph will be considered erroneous.
A new textbook is offered to students and teachers that will help them successfully prepare for the unified state exam in biology. The collection contains questions selected according to sections and topics tested on the Unified State Exam, and includes tasks different types and difficulty levels. Answers to all tasks are provided at the end of the manual. The proposed thematic assignments will help the teacher organize preparation for the unified state exam, and students will independently test their knowledge and readiness to take the final exam. The book is addressed to students, teachers and methodologists.
Examples of tasks No. 25 and possible difficulties
Questions need to be answered.
Example 1
What are the formations on the roots of a legume plant? What type of relationships between organisms is established in these formations? Explain the significance of this relationship for both organisms.
Response elements: 1. Formations on the roots of leguminous plants are nodules containing nodule azotobacteria. 2. Type of relationship: symbiosis of nitrogen-fixing bacteria and plants. 3. Nodule bacteria feed on organic substances of plants (plants provide bacteria with organic substances) 4. Nodule bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen and provide.
Note: The student may be confused by the text of the assignment. Are we talking about the relationships between the organisms inhabiting the formation or between the plant and the organisms? Are there two or more organisms? Of course, the writers of the papers strive for maximum clarity in assignments, but inaccurate formulations still occur, and the graduate must be prepared for this.
Example 2
How does a pine seed differ in structure from a fern spore? List at least three differences
Response elements: 1. The seed is a multicellular formation, the spore is unicellular. 2. The seed has a supply of nutrients; the spore does not have this supply. 3. The seed contains an embryo; the spore does not have an embryo.
Note: The spore is not the embryo of the plant. Students often confuse the concepts of “spore” and “embryo” - this should be paid attention to when preparing.
Example 3
List the membranes of the human eyeball and what functions they perform.
Response elements: 1. Tunica albuginea (sclera) – protection of internal structures; its transparent part - the cornea - protection and light refraction (optical function). 2. Choroid – blood supply to the eye (pigment layer – light absorption); its part - the iris - regulates the light flow. 3. Retina – perception of light (or color) and conversion into nerve impulses (receptor function).
Note: This is a simple task in which students make many of the same mistakes. The guys don’t write about the fact that the tunica albuginea passes into the cornea, they don’t write about the functions of the cornea related to light refraction, about the transition of the choroid into the iris, or about the fact that the iris provides pigmentation of the eye. But students often mistakenly claim that the lens and vitreous body are also the membranes of the eye.
Example 4
Where are the sympathetic nuclei of the autonomic system located? nervous system? In what cases is it activated and how does it affect the functioning of the heart?
Response elements: 1. The bodies of the first nuclei (neurons) lie in the central nervous system in the spinal cord. 2. The bodies of the second neurons lie on both sides along the spine. 3. The ANS is activated in a state of strong arousal during active activity of the body. 4. Increases heart rate.
Note: Issues related to the nervous system are always complex. It is worth carefully studying the options for assignments on this topic, as well as repeating the structure of the autonomic nervous system, its reflex arcs, and the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
In conclusion, we note that a graduate will pass the Unified State Examination in Biology with a high score only if he has motivation, diligence and hard work. Responsibility for preparing for the exam lies largely with the student himself. The teacher’s task is to guide and, if possible, teach how to learn.
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